[Milton-L] assumptions about the fruit, a question for john leonard
jamesrovira at gmail.com
Mon Apr 14 14:47:48 EDT 2014
The difference between pre and post sex is supposed to be, I think, that
prelapsarian sex is focused on the partner, while postlapsarian sex is
focused on the satisfaction of one's own appetites. The partner and the
desire are present in both cases, and the acts may well be physically the
same, but the emotional content is very different. I think many of us have
experienced this difference. We might see it in Byron's description of
young love in Don Juan (in her first love, a woman is in love with a man --
after that, she's in love with love) and in Kierkegaard's discussion of a
first love in Either/Or II (there is only one first love).
On Mon, Apr 14, 2014 at 2:42 PM, Carrol Cox <cbcox at ilstu.edu> wrote:
> Richard A. Strier: To open up another can of worms, I have never thought
> that there was any real difference between pre and post sex, even though m
> obviously wanted there to be. There was dalliance and desireful looks
> before. Thank God.
> I think I've mentioned this before. Aers & Hodge in a 1979 _Milton Studies_
> suggested that the sex in Book IV was essentially more obscene, that in
> Book IX less so. I think they quote one of their students (a woman)
> saying of Book IX, "But that's the way I _like_ it."
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Dr. James Rovira
Associate Professor of English
Blake and Kierkegaard: Creation and Anxiety
Text, Identity, Subjectivity
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