[Milton-L] "As by his Word . . ."

Harold Skulsky hskulsky at smith.edu
Mon Feb 14 14:35:23 EST 2011


M has read Irenaeus ; he is familiar with the standard heresies (and many nonstandard ones), just as he is familiar with the standard philosophical positions in Diogenes Laertius. But so what? Thin synopses of Arius Alexandrensis don't explain M's conclusions in DDC; these are based on a meticulous and defiantly independent comparison of a wide range of proof texts. 
 
As for acknowledging a consonance between his views and those of a "known heretic," what would be the point? (Actually I don't remember whether he mentions Arius in this connection.) The real point for this stubborn maverick is the need to bear witness to something of the highest importance (it is not clear for whose edification): on a scrupulous rereading by a reader who calls the shots as he sees them, the homoousianism that Nicea managed to find in Holy Writ turns up missing.
 
 >>> Gregory Machacek <Gregory.Machacek at marist.edu> 2/14/2011 12:12 PM >>>
In On Christian Doctrine, in the sections where Milton offers positions
that we label "Arian," does he himself explicitly use that term, or somehow
acknowledge that he is aware his views are similar to those of a known
heretic?


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