[Milton-L] Aristophanes & equality
rastrier at uchicago.edu
Wed Aug 18 14:55:58 EDT 2010
Re Stella's point: Yes, the dialogue as a whole does, but the question was about
the Aristophanes myth-- to my mind the most important thing in the dialogue
(much more so than "Diotoma's" speech).
---- Original message ----
>Date: Wed, 18 Aug 2010 08:11:35 -0500
>From: srevard at siue.edu
>Subject: Re: [Milton-L] Aristophanes & equality
>To: John Milton Discussion List <milton-l at lists.richmond.edu>
>I am not sure whether Aristophanes prioritzes male-male love over male-
>female-female, but the dialogue as a whole certainly does. It is not so
>apparent in translation, where the words lover and beloved might be gender
>neutral. However, in Greek, they are always masculine. This is particularly
>striking with beloved--eromenos. On the ladder of love, the relationship
>between males leads to the higher love Socrates praises.
>Quoting "Thomas H. Luxon" <Thomas.H.Luxon at dartmouth.edu>:
>> Of course Richard is correct. It did not occur to me to draw a sharp line
>> between the story and its teller in this case. When you do that the
>> hierarchical judgements are clearly in the commentary not in the tale.
>> for that, Professor.
>> But this is Aristophanes's own story, is it not? Should we not allow his
>> commentary any interpretive authority? Or, better question: why does he
>> obliged to draw out or intrude this hierarchical taxonomy of erotic
>> Sent from my iPhone
>> On Aug 17, 2010, at 11:28 AM, "richard strier" <rastrier at uchicago.edu>
>> > but I would note that with regard to Aristophanes,
>> > Luxon's view is based on commentary on the myth (and commentary
>> > itself tricky).
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