[Milton-L] Help with a pedagogical question
Grewell, Cory L.
CGrewell at thiel.edu
Thu Oct 1 14:40:19 EDT 2009
I find this aspect of political correctness produces a rather ironic twist in that, while it tries (apparently) to recognize that Christianity is not culturally universal, it implicitly seems to me to do just the opposite by denoting the Christian era as "common." I found a similar trend curious when I was doing grad work in Boston, which was to refer to Christmas as "the holiday," a phasing wherein the use of the definite article seems to elevate and almost apotheosize the holiday while trying to avoid a reference to its religious origins.
Dr. C. L. Grewell
Assistant Professor of English
75 College Ave
Greenville, PA 16125
From: milton-l-bounces at lists.richmond.edu on behalf of James Rovira
Sent: Thu 10/1/2009 11:56 AM
To: John Milton Discussion List
Subject: Re: [Milton-L] Help with a pedagogical question
Yes, it is "common era," which reinforces John's point -- common to
what? On what grounds? It's still pinned to what was thought of at
one point as the birth year of Christ, so Christ is the basis of the
"common era." At least BC explicitly pins the division to Christ
without requiring an implicit identification with Christ.
On Thu, Oct 1, 2009 at 11:51 AM, Mulryan, John <JMULRYAN at sbu.edu> wrote:
> John: I believe CE is "common era," not Christian era, although it amounts
> to the same thing. John.
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