Myth of "Unfallen" language Re: [Milton-L] swerving ...delayed

Carrol Cox cbcox at ilstu.edu
Sat Sep 29 18:41:30 EDT 2007



Horace Jeffery Hodges wrote:
> 
> 
> Of course, Milton himself is writing in a postlapsarian language, 

No, Milton is writing in 17th-c. English, and the many critics who speak
of "fallen" and "unfallen" language have never demonstrated any verbal
signs by which one could distinguish these two "languages" from each
other or from 17th-c English.

Carrol



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