James Rovira jamesrovira at gmail.com
Sun Jul 23 21:09:33 EDT 2006

Thanks for the correction and the response, Prof. Skulsky.  I think
I'm having trouble with the multiple definitions of obduracy offered
here, and that may be the problem with the progress in our discussion.
 "a" in your previous email defines obduracy as the "state of having
fallen from grace," while still further down, you define obduracy as
the "loss of free will."  It makes more sense to me for you to say
that obduracy is the loss of free will that is the result of a fall
from grace.  Otherwise, your argument is tautological.  Satan's
obduracy is the product of his obduracy -- this statement obscures the
causes of his obduracy, which seems to have been the point of the

Obduracy, in my opinion, has at least one of at least three possible causes:

1. The exercise of Satan's free choice resulted in obduracy.
2. The foreordination of God from the foundation of the world was that
Satan should become obdurate.
3. God directly acts upon Satan's will to make it obdurate.

It is possible that Milton perhaps believed in some kind of confused
Calvinism on this point.

Jim R

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