[Milton-L] text questions

[Carol Barton]

True, but that wasn't the point: "Hebrew" for "Greek" could have been a slip--but she confirmed when I spoke to her privately that she hadn't known that "perfect" could mean "complete"--


  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: Horace Jeffery Hodges 
  To: John Milton Discussion List 
  Sent: Sunday, February 03, 2008 2:32 PM
  Subject: Re: [Milton-L] text questions


  Concerning the New Testament verse Matthew 5:48:

  "Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect" (Matthew 5:48),

  Carol wrote:

  "I recently heard a priest telling her congregation that the KJV authors had 'misinterpreted' the Hebrew word for which they substituted 'perfect.' Rather, it was she who hadn't known
  that the word had other meanings when the KJV was being prepared."

  If this priest thought that the KJV authors were translating a Hebrew word in Matthew 5:48, then she was ignorant about more than 17th-century English.

  Jeffery Hodges


  University Degrees:

  Ph.D., History, U.C. Berkeley
  (Doctoral Thesis: "Food as Synecdoche in John's Gospel and Gnostic Texts")
  M.A., History of Science, U.C. Berkeley
  B.A., English Language and Literature, Baylor University

  Email Address:

  jefferyhodges at yahoo.com

  Blog:

  http://gypsyscholarship.blogspot.com/

  Office Address:

  Assistant Professor Horace Jeffery Hodges
  School of English, Kyung Hee University
  1 Hoegi-dong, Dongdaemun-gu
  Seoul, 130-701
  South Korea

  Home Address:

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