[Milton-L] Re: AV/KJV

[Horace Jeffery Hodges]

Why wouldn't the title page be sufficient as evidence? Could such a work have been printed without authorization? And would "ecclesiastical or legislative sanction" have been necessary if the king were the head of the English Church?
   
  I'm asking in ignorance.
   
  Jeffery Hodges

Patrick Scott <SCOTTP at gwm.sc.edu> wrote:
  The title-page of the AV/KJV reads "Newly translated . . . . & . . .
diligently compared and revised by his Majesties speciall Comandement.
Appointed to be read in Churches" (I just checked editions from 1611 and
1764).

The convention in Britain is to refer to the Authorized Version (or
AV); in my experience, the usual reference in the U.S. has been to the
King James Version (or KJV). 

The catalogue Printing and the Mind of Man asserts that despite the
1611 title-page "no record remains of its authorization by King,
Parliament, or Convocation." Darlow and Moule, Historical Catalogue of
Printed Editions of Holy Scriptue, I, 133-134, writes of "The editio
princeps of King James' Bible, commonly known as the 'Authorised'
Version" (p. 133) that "No evidence exists that King James' version
received any definite ecclesiastical or legislative sanction" (p. 134).



Patrick Scott
Director of Special Collections, 
Thomas Cooper Library,
& Professor of English,
University of South Carolina,
Columbia, SC 29208, USA.
Tel: 803-777-1275
Fax: 803-777-4661, attn Dr Scott
E-mail: scottp at gwm.sc.edu

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University Degrees:

Ph.D., History, U.C. Berkeley
(Doctoral Thesis: "Food as Synecdoche in John's Gospel and Gnostic Texts")
M.A., History of Science, U.C. Berkeley
B.A., English Language and Literature, Baylor University

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